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CCNA Discovery 1 Module 8

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 8 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Identify three techniques used in social engineering. (Choose three.)
• fishing
• vishing
• phishing
• spamming
• pretexting
• junk mailing

2. During a pretexting event, how is a target typically contacted?
• by e-mail
• by phone
• in person
• through another person

3. While surfing the Internet, a user notices a box claiming a prize has been won. The user opens the box unaware that a program is being installed. An intruder now accesses the computer and retrieves personal information. What type of attack occurred?
• worm
• virus
• Trojan horse
• denial of service

4. What is a major characteristic of a Worm?
• malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
• tricks users into running the infected software
• a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
• exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network

5. A flood of packets with invalid source-IP addresses requests a connection on the network. The server busily tries to respond, resulting in valid requests being ignored. What type of attack occurred?
• Trojan horse
• brute force
• ping of death
• SYN flooding

6. What type of advertising is typically annoying and associated with a specific website that is being visited?
• adware
• popups
• spyware
• tracking cookies

7. What is a widely distributed approach to marketing on the Internet that advertises to as many individual users as possible via IM or e-mail?
• brute force
• spam
• spyware
• tracking cookies

8. What part of the security policy states what applications and usages are permitted or denied?
• identification and authentication
• remote access
• acceptable use
• incident handling

9. Which statement is true regarding anti-virus software?
• Only e-mail programs need to be protected.
• Only hard drives can be protected.
• Only after a virus is known can an anti-virus update be created for it.
• Only computers with a direct Internet connection need it.

10. Which two statements are true concerning anti-spam software? (Choose two.)
• Anti-spam software can be loaded on either the end-user PC or the ISP server, but not both.
• When anti-spam software is loaded, legitimate e-mail may be classified as spam by mistake.
• Installing anti-spam software should be a low priority on the network.
• Even with anti-spam software installed, users should be careful when opening e-mail attachments.
• Virus warning e-mails that are not identified as spam via anti-spam software should be forwarded to other users immediately.

11. What term is used to describe a dedicated hardware device that provides firewall services?
• server-based
• integrated
• personal
• appliance-based

12. Which acronym refers to an area of the network that is accessible by both internal, or trusted, as well as external, or untrusted, host devices?
• SPI
• DMZ
• ISR
• ISP

13. Which statement is true about port forwarding within a Linksys integrated router?
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.
• Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
• Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.

14. To which part of the network does the wireless access point part of a Linksys integrated router connect?
• DMZ
• external
• internal
• a network other than the wired network

15. Refer to the graphic. What is the purpose of the Internet Filter option of Filter IDENT (Port 113. on the Linksys integrated router?
• to require a user ID and password to access the router
• to prevent outside intruders from attacking the router through the Internet
• to require a pre-programmed MAC address or IP address to access the router
• to disable tracking of internal IP addresses so they cannot be spoofed by outside devices

16. What statement is true about security configuration on a Linksys integrated router?
• A DMZ is not supported.
• The router is an example of a server-based firewall.
• The router is an example of an application-based firewall.
• Internet access can be denied for specific days and times.

17. What environment would be best suited for a two-firewall network design?
• a large corporate environment
• a home environment with 10 or fewer hosts
• a home environment that needs VPN access
• a smaller, less congested business environment

18. What is one function that is provided by a vulnerability analysis tool?
• It provides various views of possible attack paths.
• It identifies missing security updates on a computer.
• It identifies wireless weak points such as rogue access points.
• It identifies all network devices on the network that do not have a firewall installed.
• It identifies MAC and IP addresses that have not been authenticated on the network.

19. Many best practices exist for wired and wireless network security. The list below has one item that is not a best practice. Identify the recommendation that is not a best practice for wired and wireless security.
• Periodically update anti-virus software.
• Be aware of normal network traffic patterns.
• Periodically update the host operating system.
• Activate the firewall on a Linksys integrated router.
• Configure login permissions on the integrated router.
• Disable the wireless network when a vulnerability analysis is being performed.

20. What best practice relates to wireless access point security?
• activation of a popup stopper
• a change of the default IP address
• an update in the antivirus software definitions
• physically securing the cable between the access point and client

21. Refer to the graphic. In the Linksys Security menu, what does the SPI Firewall Protection option Enabled provide?
• It prevents packets based on the application that makes the request.
• It allows packets based on approved internal MAC or IP addresses.
• It requires that packets coming into the router be responses to internal host requests.
• It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 7

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 7 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Why is IEEE 802.11 wireless technology able to transmit further distances than Bluetooth technology?
• transmits at much lower frequencies
• has higher power output
• transmits at much higher frequencies
• uses better encryption methods

2. What are three advantages of wireless over wired technology? (Choose three.)
• more secure
• longer range
• anytime, anywhere connectivity
• easy and inexpensive to install
• ease of using licensed air space
• ease of adding additional devices

3. What are two benefits of wireless networking over wired networking? (Choose two.)
• speed
• security
• mobility
• reduced installation time
• allows users to share more resources
• not susceptible to interference from other devices

4. A technician has been asked to provide wireless connectivity to the wired Ethernet network of a building. Which three factors affect the number of access points needed? (Choose three.)
• the size of the building
• the number of solid interior walls in the building
• the presence of microwave ovens in several offices
• the encryption method used on the wireless network
• the use of both Windows and Appletalk operating systems
• the use of shortwave or infrared on the AP

5. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
• Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
• Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
• Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
• Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

6. What does the Wi-Fi logo indicate about a wireless device?
• IEEE has approved the device.
• The device is interoperable with all other wireless standards.
• The device is interoperable with other devices of the same standard that also display the Wi-Fi logo.
• The device is backwards compatible with all previous wireless standards.

7. Which statement is true concerning wireless bridges?
• connects two networks with a wireless link
• stationary device that connects to a wireless LAN
• allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network
• increases the strength of a wireless signal

8. Which WLAN component is commonly referred to as an STA?
• cell
• antenna
• access point
• wireless bridge
• wireless client

9. Which statement is true concerning an ad-hoc wireless network?
• created by connecting wireless clients in a peer-to-peer network
• created by connecting wireless clients to a single, centralized AP
• created by connecting multiple wireless basic service sets through a distribution system
• created by connecting wireless clients to a wired network using an ISR

10. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys integrated router, what does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?
• The router supports encryption and authentication.
• The router supports both wired and wireless connections.
• The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.
• The router supports connectivity through infrared and radio frequencies.

11. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu of a Linksys integrated router, what configuration option allows the presence of the access point to be known to nearby clients?
• Network Mode
• Network Name (SSID)
• Radio Band
• Wide Channel
• Standard Channel
• SSID Broadcast

12. Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)
• tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
• consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
• responsible for determining the signal strength
• all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID
• used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network

13. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
• Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
• Wardriving enhances security of wireless networks.
• With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
• Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.
• An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.

14. What type of authentication does an access point use by default?
• Open
• PSK
• WEP
• EAP

15. Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?
• requires no authentication
• uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm
• requires the use of an authentication server
• requires a mutually agreed upon password

16. What are two authentication methods that an access point could use? (Choose two.)
• WEP
• WPA
• EAP
• ASCII
• pre-shared keys

17. What is the difference between using open authentication and pre-shared keys?
• Open authentication requires a password. Pre-shared keys do not require a password.
• Open authentication is used with wireless networks. Pre-shared keys are used with wired networks.
• Pre-shared keys require an encrypted secret word. Open authentication does not require a secret word.
• Pre-shared keys require a MAC address programmed into the access point. Open authentication does not require this programming.

18. What term describes the encoding of wireless data to prevent intercepted data from being read by a hacker?
• address filtering
• authentication
• broadcasting
• encryption
• passphrase encoding

19. What access-point feature allows a network administrator to define what type of data can enter the wireless network?
• encryption
• hacking block
• traffic filtering
• MAC address filtering
• authentication

20. What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two.)
• 8 bit
• 16 bit
• 32 bit
• 64 bit
• 128 bit

21. Complete the following sentence: WEP is used to ______ , and EAP is used to _____ wireless networks.
• encrypt; authenticate users on
• filter traffic; select the operating frequency for
• identify the wireless network; compress data on
• create the smallest wireless network; limit the number of users on

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 6

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 6 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. A user types www.cisco.com into a web browser address textbox. What does www.cisco.com represent?
• the IP address of a web server
• a physical network address
• the closest router interface to the source
• the source IP address in the data transmission

2. What type of server would use IMAP?
• DNS
• DHCP
• e-mail
• FTP
• Telnet
• web

3. Which type of server would most likely be used first by a network client in a corporate environment?
• DNS
• DHCP
• e-mail
• FTP
• Telnet
• web

4. Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
• TCP
• SMTP
• UDP
• SNMP

5. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
• UDP
• FTP
• IP
• SMTP
• TCP

6. Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
• Application
• Physical
• Internet
• Network Access
• Presentation

7. You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?
• UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
• TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.

8. Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names into their associated IP addresses?
• Uniform Resource Locator
• Network redirector server
• SNMP server
• DNS server

9. Which application is most likely used to translate www.cisco.com to 198.133.219.25?
• DHCP
• DNS
• FTP
• HTTP
• POP
• SMTP

10. Refer to the graphic. Which protocol is used to access this website?
• IM
• FTP
• HTTP
• SNMP
• VoIP

11. Which port number is used by SMTP?
• 20
• 21
• 25
• 26
• 110

12. Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
• FTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
• SNMP

13. What client software enables logged in users to communicate with other logged in users in real time?
• blog
• e-mail
• web mail
• instant messaging

14. An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?
• The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
• The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
• The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
• The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.

15. What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?
• protocol hierarchy
• protocol modeling
• protocol stack
• protocol layering

16. What three items are contained in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• error-checking information

17. What information is contained in an IP header?
• source and destination IP addresses
• source and destination MAC addresses
• only destination IP and MAC addresses
• both source and destination IP and MAC addresses

18. Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?
• 4
• 2
• 1
• 3

19. A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?
• removes the IP header
• removes the TCP header
• passes data to the application layer
• removes the Ethernet header and trailer

20. A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?
• 1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
• 1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits
• 1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
• 1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits

21. What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
• It breaks network communications into larger parts.
• It increases complexity.
• It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
• It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

22. What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?
• data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
• application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 5

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 5 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. How large are IPv4 addresses?
• 8 bits
• 16 bits
• 32 bits
• 64 bits
• 128 bits

2. Refer to the graphic. A user at the workstation cannot connect to the server. All cables have been tested and are working and all devices have IP addressing. However, the user cannot ping the server. What is causing the problem?
• The router interface does not have a default gateway.
• The switch does not have an IP address and default gateway.
• The workstation and server are on different logical networks.
• The workstation does not know the MAC address of the switch.

3. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
• first two octets
• third and fourth octets
• network portion
• host portion
• only the fourth octet

4. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
• 172.32.65.0
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0

5. Which default subnet mask provides the most host bits?
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.252

6. How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using a default subnet mask?
• 4
• 8
• 16
• 24

7. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512

8. Assuming a default mask, which portion of the IP address 175.124.35.4 represents the host?
• 175.124
• 35.4
• .4
• 124.35.4
• 175.124.35

9. Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.1.1
• 172.32.5.2
• 192.167.10.10
• 172.16.4.4
• 192.168.5.5
• 224.6.6.6

10. What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?
• a specific host
• a group of hosts
• the default gateway
• the network broadcast address

11. What is the destination MAC address in a multicast Ethernet frame?
• the MAC address of the sending host
• the MAC address of the destination host
• an address that begins with 01-00-5E in hexadecimal
• a 48-bit hexadecimal address expressed as FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

12. Yvonne is talking to her friend on the phone. What type of message is this?
• broadcast
• simulcast
• multicast
• unicast

13. What information must be included within a unicast message for it to be delivered on an Ethernet network?
• MAC and IP addresses for the default router
• IP address and subnet mask of the default gateway
• MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a destination group
MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a specific destination host

14. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?
• The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
• The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
• The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.
• The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.

15. Which type of server dynamically assigns an IP address to a host?
• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• RARP

16. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
• The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
• The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
• The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
• The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
• All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
• Only the DHCP server receives the message.

17. Refer to the graphic. A host connects to a Linksys integrated router that is also a DHCP server and receives an IP address from it. Which address does the host need to access the ISP and the Internet?
• IP address of the destination host
• public gateway IP address of the ISP
• external IP address of the integrated router that connects to the ISP
• internal IP address of the integrated router that connects to the local network

18. Which statement is true concerning private IP addresses?
• ensures that two networks separated by the Internet use unique IP network numbers
• allows internal hosts to communicate with servers across the Internet
• solves the issue of a finite number of available public IP addresses
• allows for ISPs to be able to quickly determine network location

19. What is one of the purposes of NAT?
• filters network traffic based on IP address ranges
• prevents external users from detecting the IP addresses used on a network
• inspects traffic that might be harmful or used in an attack against the network
• translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names

20. Which two statements describe packets that are sent through a Linksys integrated router using NAT? (Choose two.)
• Packets that are sent to any destination need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to hosts on the same network need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to a destination outside the local network need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to a destination outside a local network do not need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent between hosts on the same local network do not need to be translated.

21. Refer to the graphic. NAT and DHCP are installed on the Linksys integrated router. Which IP address is most likely to be assigned to the local computer, Host1?
• 10.0.0.17
• 128.107.1.2
• 192.135.250.0
• 209.165.201.1

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 4

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 4 Exam Answers
Version 4.0

1. Which definition describes the term Internet?
• a group of PCs connected together on a LAN
• a group of PCs connected together by an ISP
• a network of networks that connects countries around the world
• a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization

2. What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?
• between a client and a host
• between two local networks
• between a computer and a switch
• between an ISP and a home-based LAN

3. What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs?
• Internet LAN
• ISP backbone
• Internet gateways
• Internet providers
• Internet backbone

4. Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package?
• hub
• bridge
• modem
• repeater
• ISR

5. What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.)
• fast connections
• extra web space
• free Windows upgrade
• cheapest cost available to all users
• additional e-mail accounts
• replacement hardware at no cost

6. What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?
• Download speeds and upload speeds are equal.
• Download speeds are slower than upload speeds.
• Upload speeds and download speeds are different.
• Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant.

7. Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose three.)
• an IP address
• file sharing enabled
• a network connection
• server services enabled
• access to an Internet service provider
• an address obtained directly from the RIR

8. What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between source and destination networks?
• NOC
• ISP
• hop
• segment

9. What does the tracert command test?
• NIC functionality
• the ISP bandwidth
• the network path to a destination
• the destination application functionality

10. What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their network?
• analog technology
• cable modem technology
• digital subscriber line technology
• wireless technology

11. Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?
• to connect end users using cable technology
• to connect end users using analog technology
• to connect end users using wireless technology
• to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology

12. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber

13. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber

14. Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
• between buildings
• in a home office network
• where EMI is an issue
• in a cable TV network
• inside a school building
• in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices

15. What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?
• data security
• no loss of signal
• no electromagnetic interference
• reliable data communications

16. Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?
• crossover
• eight coax channels
• multimode fiber
• single-mode fiber
• straight-through

17. What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling?
• ST
• BNC
• RJ-11
• RJ-45

18. Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)
• uses RJ-11 jacks
• uses RJ-45 jacks
• supports only data transmissions
• allows quick rearrangements of network connections
• forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses

19. What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)
• requires no preplanning
• aids in isolation of cabling problems
• protects cables from physical damage
• provides compliance with future standards
• provides a short-term solution for cable installation

20. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
• installing cables in conduit
• having improper termination
• losing light over long distances
• installing low quality cable shielding
• using low quality cables or connectors

21. What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
• pinouts
• cable lengths
• connector color
• connector types
• cost per meter (foot)
• tensile strength of plastic insulator

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 2

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. An operating system is severely damaged. All data on the partition needs to be deleted, and all application software must be reinstalled. Which installation method should be used to correct the problem?
• clean install
• upgrade
• multi-boot
• virtualization

2. Which two statements should be included in a pre-installation checklist when upgrading an operating system? (Choose two.)
• Verify that the hardware resources have multiple partitions.
• Verify that the hardware resources meet or exceed the published minimum requirements.
• Complete a full backup of all important files and data.
• Overwrite any data currently contained on the drive to remove all contents.
• Verify that the hardware resources are certified to work with the existing operating system prior to upgrading.

3. Which three pieces of information must be specified on a computer to allow that computer to send and receive information across networks? (Choose three.)
• closest server
• operating system
• IP address
• subnet mask
• default gateway
• network card driver

4. Which two items must be unique to each computer and cannot be duplicated on a network? (Choose two.)
• partition
• file system
• computer name
• IP address
• operating system

5. Which method of interacting with an operating system involves typing commands at a command prompt?
• CLI
• GUI
• redirector
• kernel translator

6. What are three characteristics of an operating system that is released under the GPL (GNU Public License)? (Choose three.)
• full access to source code
• software often available free
• structured development cycle
• can be expensive to purchase
• limits what end-user can do with code
• support normally user-based and often free

7. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
• physically connects a computer to a network
• provides a permanent address to a computer
• identifies the network to which a computer is connected
• identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

8. Which two statements are true about drive partitions? (Choose two.)
• Partitions are necessary in multi-boot installations.
• A hard drive can be divided into an operating system partition and a data partition.
• User data is never overwritten when a drive is partitioned.
• A disk partition is a defined section of an operating system.
• Each partition requires a different file system type.

9. What occurs when computers are configured to receive their network configurations dynamically?
• Each computer receives a permanent IP address.
• A network administrator enters information on each computer.
• Each computer requests configuration information from a server.
• An NIC automatically provides configuration information to the computer and stores that configuration information.

10. What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose two.)
• CLI
• OS
• GUI
• NIC
• kernel

11. Which three resource specifications are given by the manufacturer to ensure that an operating system performs as designed? (Choose three.)
• required hard disk space
• type of accelerated graphics card
• recommended amount of RAM
• printer requirements
• processor type and speed
• type of keyboard

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 1

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 1 Exam Answers
Version 4.0

1. Which computer component is considered the nerve center of the computer system and is responsible for processing all of the data within the machine?
• RAM
• CPU
• video card
• sound card
• operating system

2. What are two advantages of purchasing a preassembled computer? (Choose two.)
• usually a lower cost
• exact components may be specified
• extended waiting period for assembly
• adequate for performing most general applications
• suited for customers with special needs

3. A user plans to run multiple applications simultaneously on a computer. Which computer component is essential to accomplish this?
• RAM
• NIC
• video card
• sound card
• storage device

4. Which adapter card enables a computer system to exchange information with other systems on a local network?
• modem card
• controller card
• video card
• sound card
• network interface card

5. What is the main storage drive used by servers, desktops, and laptops?
• tape drive
• hard drive
• optical drive (DVD)
• floppy disk drive

6. Which component is designed to remove high-voltage spikes and surges from a power line so that they do not damage a computer system?
• CPU
• surge suppressor
• motherboard
• hard drive

7. What are two examples of output peripheral devices? (Choose two.)
• printer
• speakers
• flash drive
• external DVD
• external modem

8. What two functions does a UPS provide that a surge protector does not ? (Choose two.)
• protects the computer from voltage surges
• provides backup power from an internal battery
• protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes
• gives the user time to phone the electrical company
• gives the user time to safely shut down the computer if the power fails
• provides backup power through a generator provided by the wall outlet

9. What is a word processor?
• It is a physical computer component.
• It is a program designed to perform a specific function.
• It is a program that controls the computer resources.
• It is a functional part of an operating system.

10. What is the purpose of the ASCII code?
• translates bits into bytes
• interprets graphics digitally
• translates digital computer language into binary language
• represents letters, characters, and numbers with bits

11. Why do servers often contain duplicate or redundant parts?
• Servers require more power and thus require more components.
• Servers should be accessible at all times.
• Servers can be designed as standalone towers or rack mounted.
• Servers are required by networking standards to have duplicate parts.

12. What are two benefits of hooking up a laptop to a docking station? (Choose two.)
• Mobility is increased.
• An external monitor can be used.
• Alternate connectivity options may be available.
• The keyboard can be changed to a QWERTY-style keyboard.
• More wireless security options are available.

13. Applications can be grouped into general use software or industry specific software. What are two examples of industry specific software? (Choose two.)
• CAD
• presentation
• spreadsheet
• word processing
• medical practice management
• contacts/scheduling management

14. Which three terms describe different types of computers? (Choose three.)
• operating system
• network
• laptop
• desktop
• Windows
• mainframe

15. How is a server different from a workstation computer?
• The server works as a standalone computer.
• The server provides services to clients.
• The workstation has fewer applications installed.
• The workstation has more users who attach to it.

16. How many values are possible using a single binary digit?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 8
• 9
• 16

17. What measurement is commonly associated with computer processing speed?
• bits
• pixels
• hertz
• bytes

18. What can be used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD)?
• dry and non humid conditions
• carpeted floor
• grounding strap
• uncluttered work space

19. If a peripheral device is not functioning, what are three things you should do to solve the problem? (Choose three.)
• Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available.
• Verify that all cables are connected properly.
• Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral.
• Ensure that the peripheral is powered on.
• Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating normally.
• Reload the computer operating system.

20. Which two steps should be performed when installing a peripheral device? (Choose two.)
• Download and install the most current driver.
• Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the computer.
• Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless connection.
• Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one where it will be used.
• Check the computer documentation to see if the peripheral vendor is compatible with the PC vendor.

21. In newer operating systems, how are system resources assigned by default when components are installed?
• manually assigned by the operating system
• manually assigned by the administrator
• statically assigned by the component to a preset resource
• dynamically assigned between the component and the operating system

CCNA Discovery 3 chapter 5

Lab 5.1.2.4 Designing and Creating a Redundant Network

Step 1: Determine the minimum number of links to meet the requirements

Step 2: Implement the design

Step 3: Verify the design

a.    Do three paths between the east and west coast operations exist? jawab: ya

b.    Does each site have at least two links? Jawab : ya

c.    Does each site on the east coast have two paths to the west coast? Jawab: tidak

d.    Does each site on the west coast have two paths to the east coast? Jawab : ya

e.    Will one device failure affect multiple sites? Jawab : east coast to west coast

Reflection

a.    What network topology is now implemented after adding redundancy? Jawab : Extended Star

f.     What is an advantage to using the topology implemented after adding redundancy? Jawab : Partial Mesh

b.    What is a disadvantage to using the topology implemented after redundancy was added? Jawab: redudansi meminimalkan dampak bahwa kegagalan dari suatu peralatan telah di operasikan oleh jaringan

c.    Why would a company, such as the one in this case, suddenly decide to implement the type of topology used in step b? jawab:

Dalam kasus ini,perusahaan kehilangan 16 jam produksi dan $600,000 perusahaan. Tidak ada perusahaan yang ingin menurunkan penjualan atau waktu yang menyebabkan kerugian padakeuntungan untuk perusahaan mereka.

Lab 5.2.3 Configuring RIPv2 with VLSM, and Default Route Propagation

Step 1: Connect the equipment.

Step 2: Perform basic configurations on the routers.

Step 3: Perform basic configurations on the switches

Step 4: Configure the hosts with the proper IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.

Step 5: Configure RIP v2 routing

a.     On R1, configure RIP version 2 as the routing protocol and advertise the appropriate networks: R1(config)#router rip

R1(config-router)#version 2

R1(config-router)#network 172.16.1.0

R1(config-router)#network 172.16.3.0

Predict: how will RIP report these subnets in the routing table? Jawab: As a 172.16.0.0 summary route, as well as individual subnets of the 172.16.0.0 network.

b.    From the network commands, which interfaces are participating in RIP routing? Jawab : Fa0/0, S0/0/0.

c.     Perform a similar configuration on R2, setting the version, advertising the appropriate networks, and turning off auto-summarization

d.    On R3, perform a similar configuration. Do not advertise the 209.165.201.0/24 network.

Step 6: Configure and redistribute a default route for Internet access.

Step 7: Verify the routing configuration.

a.    View the routing table on R3:

R3#show ip route

<<output omitted>>

Gateway of last resort is 209.165.201.2 to network 0.0.0.0

172.16.0.0/30 is subnetted, 4 subnets

R 172.16.1.0 [120/1] via 172.16.3.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/0/0

R 172.16.2.0 [120/1] via 172.16.3.5, 00:00:12, Serial0/0/1

C 172.16.3.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

C 172.16.3.4 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

C 209.165.201.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 209.165.201.2

How can you tell from the routing table that the subnetted network shared by R1, R2 and R3 has a pathway for Internet traffic? Jawab : ada gateway pada resort terakhir, dan rute default muncul di table.

b.    View the routing tables on R2 and R1.

How is the pathway for Internet traffic provided in their routing tables? Jawab : There is a Gateway of Last Resort leading to R3, and the default route shows up as a distributed RIP

route.

Step 8: Verify connectivity.

a.    Simulate sending traffic to the Internet by pinging from the host PCs to 209.165.201.2. Were the pings successful? Jawab : ya

b.    Verify that hosts within the subnetted network can reach each other by pinging between Host1 and Host2.

Were the pings successful? Jawab : ya

Step 9: Reflection.

How did R1 and R2 learn the pathway to the Internet for this network? jawab: From RIP routing updates received from the router where the route was configured (R3).

Lab 5.4.1.4 Implementing EIGRP

Step 1: Connect the equipment

Step 2: Perform basic configurations on the routers

Step 3: Configure EIGRP routing with default commands

a.     On Gateway, configure EIGRP as the routing protocol with an autonomous system number of 100, and advertise the appropriate networks.

Gateway(config)#router eigrp 100

Gateway(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0

Gateway(config-router)#network 10.0.0.4

Predict: How will EIGRP report these subnets in the routing table? Jawab : As a 10.0.0.0 summary route, as well as individual subnets of the 10.0.0.0 network.

b.    On Branch1, configure EIGRP as the routing protocol with an autonomous system number of 100, and advertise the appropriate networks:

Branch1(config)#router eigrp 100

Branch1(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0

Branch1(config-router)#network 10.0.0.8

Branch1(config-router)#network 172.16.0.0

Branch1(config-router)#network 172.16.1.0

Branch1(config-router)#network 172.16.2.0

Branch1(config-router)#network 172.16.3.0

c.     Perform a similar configuration on Branch2, using EIGRP 100 and advertising the appropriate networks.

Step 4: Configure MD5 Authentication

a.       Create a keychain named discchain.

b.      Configure a key 1 that has a key string of san-fran.

c. Enable the workgroup router to utilize EIGRP MD5 authentication with each of your EIGRP neighbors and to use the keychain icndchain. Branch1(config)#key chain discchain

Branch1(config-keychain)#key 1

Branch1(config-keychain-key)#key-string san-fran

Branch1(config-keychain-key)#end

Branch1#config terminal

Branch1(config)#interface serial0/1/1

Branch1(config-if)#ip authentication mode eigrp 100 md5

Branch1(config-if)#ip authentication key-chain eigrp 100 discchain (repeat for all routers on all necessary interfaces)

d.      Look at the contents of the Router1 routing table to ensure all routing updates are being accepted.

Gateway#show ip route

List the routes that are shown:

Step 5: Reflection

a.     What is the importance of enabling authentication on the routing updates?

Lab 5.4.2.4 EIGRP Configuring Automatic and Manual Route Summarization and Discontiguous Subnets

Step 1: Connect the equipment

Step 2: Perform basic configurations on the routers

Step 3: Configure EIGRP routing with default commands

a.    On Gateway, configure EIGRP as the routing protocol with an autonomous system number of 100, and advertise the appropriate networks.

Gateway(config)#router eigrp 100

Gateway(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0

Gateway(config-router)#network 10.0.0.4

Predict: How will EIGRP report these subnets in the routing table? Jawab : As a 10.0.0.0 summary route, as well as individual subnets of the 10.0.0.0 network.

b.    On Branch1, configure EIGRP as the routing protocol with an autonomous system number of 100, and advertise the appropriate networks:

Branch1(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3

Branch1(config-router)#network 10.0.0.8 0.0.0.3

Branch1(config-router)#network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255

Branch1(config-router)#network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255

Branch1(config-router)#network 172.16.2.0 0.0.0.255

Branch1(config-router)#network 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255

c.    Perform a similar configuration on Branch2, using EIGRP 100 and advertising the appropriate networks.

Step 4: Verify the routing configuration

View the routing table on Gateway.

Gateway of last resort is not set

10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks

D 10.0.0.0/8 is a summary, 00:02:33, Null0

C 10.0.0.0/30 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

C 10.0.0.4/30 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

D 10.0.0.8/30 [90/2681856] via 10.0.0.6, 00:03:19, Serial0/0/1

[90/2681856] via 10.0.0.2, 00:02:34, Serial0/0/0

D 172.16.0.0/16 [90/2297856] via 10.0.0.2, 00:02:09, Serial0/0/0

D 172.17.0.0/16 [90/2297856] via 10.0.0.6, 00:03:15, Serial0/0/1

Which subnets are not reported in this output? Jawab : The subnet dikonfigurasikan untuk jaringan 172.16.0.0 dan 172.17.0.0 tidak hadir

Why are there two paths reported for the 10.0.0.8/30 route?  Jawab :Karena tidak ada perintah bandwidth yang telah dikonfigurasi, EIGRP memiliki dua jalan sama-biaya untuk melaporkan.

Step 5: Remove Automatic summarization

Step 6: Verify the routing configuration

Are all subnets represented in the table? Jawab : ya

What kind of interface is “Null0”? jawab : Sebuah antarmuka virtual untuk rute ringkasan.

Step 7: Configure manual summarization

On Branch2, configure manual summarization to force EIGRP to summarize only the 172.17.0.0 subnets.

Branch2(config)#interface s0/0/0

Branch2(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp 100 172.17.0.0 255.255.252.0

Branch2(config)#interface s0/0/1

Branch2(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp 100 172.17.0.0 255.255.252.0

View the routing tables of Branch1 and Gateway again. Describe the effect that these summary commands have on the routing tables. Jawab:

The 172.17.0.0, 172.17.1.0, 172.17.2.0 and 172.17.3.0 networks are summarized but the 172.16.0.0

networks are not.

Step 7: Reflection

a.     Although removing automatic summarization solved the issue of missing subnets, what possible problem could it cause? Jawab:

Tabel routing sangat panjang, dan itu akan memperlambat proses pencarian.

b.    How could removing automatic summarization help in troubleshooting an EIGRP network? jawab:

Memeriksa output terhadap semua subnet yang mungkin akan mengungkapkan subnet (s) yang hilang. Itu adalah sambungan dan konfigurasi yang perlu diperiksa.

c.     How did the use of loopback interfaces make this lab easier to complete? Jawab: Kurang peralatan yang diperlukan, waktu lebih sedikit untuk mengatur dan peralatan kabel.